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Refer to the exhibit. If the default-information originate always command is configured on R4, what route type is assigned to the default route in R1’s route table?
C. O IA
Refer to the exhibit. The spokes of the DMVPN with the given configuration are having QoS issues.
Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Configure qos pre-classify on the tunnel interface.
B. Configure an NHRP group on the tunnel interface and associate it to a QoS policy.
C. Modify the configuration of the IPsec policy to accept QoS policies.
D. Manually configure a QoS policy on the serial interface.
E. Configure the bandwidth statement on the tunnel interface.
F. Configure the bandwidth statement on the serial interface.
Which command can you enter to prevent a router from displaying Telnet connection messages on the terminal?
A. service telnet-zeroldle
B. ip telnet hidden hostname
C. ip telnet hidden address
D. no ip domain-lookup
E. ip telnet quiet
Which description of Infrastructure as a Service is true?
A. a cloud service that delivers on-demand Internet connection between sites
B. a cloud service that delivers on-demand intranet connection between sites
C. a cloud service that delivers on-demand software services on a subscription basis
D. a cloud service that delivers on-demand resources like networking and storage
Which two statements about VSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. It requires physical switches to be collocated.
B. It is dependent on spanning-tree.
C. It requires three IP addresses per ULAN.
D. Each VSS has a single management IP address
E. It can eliminate the need for HSRP.
For which reason can two OSPF neighbor routers on the same LAN segment be stuck in the two-way state?
A. The two routers have different MTUs on the interface.
B. The two routers are configured with different priorities.
C. The interface priority is set to zero on both routers.
D. Both routers have the same OSPF router ID.
Which option is an example of SaaS?
A. Google Apps
B. Amazon AWS
C. Google App Engine
D. Microsoft Azure
How does an IPv6 host automatically generate a global address?
A. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
B. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
C. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation messages.
D. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation messages.
Which statement about the feasible distance in EIGRP is true?
A. It is the maximum metric that should feasibly be considered for installation in the RIB.
B. It is the smallest metric toward the destination encountered …time the destination went from Active tp Passive state.
C. It is the metric that is supplied by the best next hop toward the destination.
D. It is the maximum metric possible based on the maximum hop count that is allowed.
FD is a record of the lowest known distance since the last transition from the Active to Passive state.
Refer to the exhibit. What tag will be applied to the 172.16.130.0/24 route?
What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. No tunnel destination has been specified.
C. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
D. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
Which option describes how a network administrator prevents possible routing for VLSM subnets that are missing from the routing table?
A. Create a route for the subnet to the null interface, and then redistribute the static route into the routing process.
B. Create a loopback interface with the correct subnet, and then redistribute the connected interface to the routing table.
C. Create a loopback interface with the correct subnet, and the routing protocol automatically injects it into its routing process.
D. Create a route for the subnet to the null interface, and the routing protocol automatically injects it into its routing process.
What are two potential drawbacks of VPLS?(Choose two.)
A. VPLS devices drop all VLAN-tagged packets.
B. VPLS increases the risk of routing loops.
C. VPLS is poorly suited for large, flat network implementations.
D. When more devices are added to the VPLS, packet replication is significantly increased.
E. VPLS requires manual configuration for loop prevention.
What command can you enter on a Cisco router so that it can both poll a time server and be polled by a time server?
A. ntp server
B. ntp broadcast client
C. ntp broadcast destination
D. ntp peer
Which two options are examples of Northbound and/or Southbound protocol?(Choose two)
What are two differences between IPv6 ISATAP tunneling and IPv6 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two)
A. Only ISATAP tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets between sites.
B. Only 6to4 tunneling requires 2002:: /16 addresses.
C. Only ISATAP tunneling can transfer IPv6 multicast packets.
D. Only ISATAP tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets within a site.
E. Only 6to4 tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets within a site.
A host on an Ethernet segment has a different subnet mask than the default gateway. What can be done to allow it to communicate with devices outside of this subnet?
A. Configure a static route for the host on the default gateway.
B. Configure a static ARP entry on the default gateway for the host IP address.
C. Enable gratuitous ARP on the host.
D. Enable proxy ARP on the default gateway.
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the NETCONF layers on the left onto their appropriate description on the left.
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop each extended ping IP header option from the left onto the corresponding description on the right.
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400-101 new questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDQndBMUJTakdhaEE
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