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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: http://www.lead2pass.com/642-997.html

Which three selections represent implementations of Cisco VN-Link technology? (Choose three.)

A.    Cisco Nexus 1000V
B.    Cisco Nexus 2000 FEX
C.    Cisco VM-FEX
D.    VMware PTS
E.    vMotion

Answer: ACD
The VM is powered on and resides on the ESX Host 1 with all the information stored on the shared storage.
The VM was connected to the PODy (where y is the number of your POD) PTS VDS by associating it to port group VLAN61 that was created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 device. The VM has been connected to the vPC system automatically using a VN-Link in the hardware in PTS mode or in VM-FEX mode.
The VEM bits are used in PTS mode to connect the VM VNIC to the VMNIC interface.
In this case, the VMNIC interface is not a real VMNIC but a dynamic VNIC that is presented as an interface to the ESX OS. The dynamic VNIC is enabled when the Cisco UCS VIC creates and configures the VNIC parameters inherited from port group VLAN61.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513_n1_1/ n5k_ops_vmfex.html

Which two items are required components of VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)

A.    VDC
B.    VEM
C.    vPC
D.    VSM
E.    VRRP

Answer: BD
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series consists of two main types of components that can virtually emulate a 66-slot modular Ethernet switch with redundant supervisor functions:
• Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)-data plane: This lightweight software component runs inside the hypervisor. It enables advanced networking and security features, performs switching between directly attached virtual machines, provides uplink capabilities to the rest of the network, and effectively replaces the vSwitch. Each hypervisor is embedded with one VEM.
• Virtual supervisor module (VSM)-control plane: This standalone, external, physical or virtual appliance is responsible for the configuration, management, monitoring, and diagnostics of the overall Cisco Nexus 1000V Series system (that is, the combination of the VSM itself and all the VEMs it controls) as well as the integration with VMware vCenter. A single VSM can manage up to 64 VEMs. VSMs can be deployed in an active-standby model, helping ensure high availability.

Which two items are features that are available in VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)

A.    VM snapshot
B.    NetFlow
D.    high availability
E.    resource reservations

Answer: BC
NetFlow is a feature that was introduced on Cisco routers that provides the ability to collect IP network traffic as it enters or exits an interface. By analyzing the data provided by NetFlow, a network administrator can determine things such as the source and destination of traffic, class of service, and the causes of congestion. A typical flow monitoring setup (using NetFlow) consists of three main components:
Flow exporter: aggregates packets into flows and exports flow records towards one or more flow collectors.
Flow collector: responsible for reception, storage and pre-processing of flow data received from a flow exporter.
Analysis application: analyzes received flow data in the context of intrusion detection or traffic profiling,

This module describes how to configure Encapsulated Remote Switched Port Analyzer (ERSPAN). The Cisco ERSPAN feature allows you to monitor traffic on one or more ports or VLANs and send the monitored traffic to one or more destination ports.

Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches are true?

A.    It allows partial zone set changes to be distributed without having to activate a zone set.
B.    Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR.
C.    Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job.
D.    More than one zone set can be active with enhanced zoning.

Answer: A
Enhanced zoning implements changes to the zoning database and distributes it without reactivation. Distribution of zone sets without activation avoids hardware changes for hard zoning in the switches.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/san_switching/6x/b_550 0_SAN_Switching_Config_6x/b_5500_SAN_Switching_Config_602N12_chapter_01001.html#con _1871274

Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?

A.    switch(config)# npiv enable
B.    switch(config)# npivon
C.    switch(config)# feature npiv
D.    switch(config)# npiv proxy
E.    switch(config)# np proxy-enable

Answer: C

Between which two types of ports does FIP establish Fibre Channel virtual links? (Choose two.)

A.    VE Ports and VE Ports
B.    N Ports and F Ports
C.    VN Ports and VF Ports
D.    VP Ports and VE Ports
E.    VE Ports and VF Ports
F.    E Ports and E Ports

Answer: AC
FIP aims to establish virtual FC links between VN_Ports and VF_Ports (ENode to FCF), as well as between pairs of VE_Ports (FCF to FCF), since these are the only legal combinations supported by native Fibre Channel fabrics. Standards-compliant implementations are not required to support both forms of virtual FC links, and Cisco has decided to focus initially on implementing FIP only between ENodes and FCFs. FCF-to-FCF connectivity is considered a strategic direction for end-to-end FCoE deployments, but the short-term urgency is for FCoE adoption between CNAs and the Fibre Channel fabric perimeter, where unified fabric can offer the greatest capital expenditure (CapEx) savings today.

Which FCoE component is responsible for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of Fibre Channel frames in Ethernet?

A.    distributed FCF
B.    FCoE node
C.    FCoE logical endpoint
D.    Fibre Channel forwarder
E.    FCoE forwarder

Answer: C
The FCoE Logical Endpoint (FCoE_LEP) is responsible for the encapsulation and deencapsulation functions of the FCoE traffic. FCoE_LEP has the standard Fibre Channel layers, starting with FC-2 and continuing up the Fibre Channel Protocol stack.

Which item represents the process that allows FCoE multihop using T11 standard FC-BB-5?

A.    distributed FCF
B.    FIP proxy
C.    N Port proxy
D.    FIP snooping

Answer: D
FIP snooping is used in multi-hop FCoE environments. FIP snooping is a frame inspection method that can be used by FIP snooping capable DCB devices to monitor FIP frames and apply policies based on the information in those frames. This allows for:
Enhanced FCoE security (Prevents FCoE MAC spoofing.)
Creates FC point-to-point links within the Ethernet LAN
Allows auto-configuration of ACLs based on name server information read in the FIP frames

How does an FCoE end node acquire its FCoE MAC address?

A.    server-provided MAC address
B.    Fibre Channel name server
C.    fabric-provided MAC address
D.    FIP proxy

Answer: C
The VN_Port is assigned a fabric-provided Mac address (FPMA) that is built by concatenating a 24-bit FCoE MAC address prefix (FC-MAP), ranging from 0x0E-FC-00 to 0x0E-FC-FF, to the 24-bit FCID. Being able to build a unique MAC address for the VN_Port directly from its FCID saves the switch from having to maintain a table that associates FCID and MAC addresses.

What mode is required on a Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 10-GB module port group to allow equal access to the 10-GB port controller?

A.    dedicated
B.    assigned
C.    shared
D.    community

Answer: C
You can share 10 Gb of bandwidth among a group of ports (four ports) on a 32-port 10-Gigabit Ethernet module. To share the bandwidth, you must bring the dedicated port administratively down, specify the ports that are to share the bandwidth, change the rate mode to shared, and then bring the ports administratively up.

Which SCSI terminology is used to describe source and destination nodes?

A.    hosts and targets
B.    initiators and targets
C.    HBA and disks
D.    initiators and disks
E.    HBA and targets

Answer: B
In computer data storage, a SCSI initiator is the endpoint that initiates a SCSI session, that is, sends a SCSI command. The initiator usually does not provide any Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs). On the other hand, a SCSI target is the endpoint that does not initiate sessions, but instead waits for initiators’ commands and provides required input/output data transfers. The target usually provides to the initiators one or more LUNs, because otherwise no read or write command would be possible.

Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?

A.    DCE
B.    DCBx
C.    CDP
D.    LLDP

Answer: B
Data Center Bridging Capabilities Exchange Protocol (DCBX): a discovery and capability exchange protocol that is used for conveying capabilities and configuration of the above features between neighbors to ensure consistent configuration across the network. This protocol leverages functionality provided by IEEE 802.1AB (LLDP). It is actually included in the 802.1az standard.

Which two items are services that are provided by Cisco Fabric Services? (Choose two.)

A.    device alias distribution
B.    VLAN database distribution
C.    Kerberos proxy distribution
D.    RSA key pair distribution
E.    DPVM configuration distribution

Answer: AE
The device alias application uses the Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) infrastructure to enable efficient database management and distribution. Device aliases use the coordinated distribution mode and the fabric-wide distribution scope.
DPVM can use CFS to distribute the database to all switches in the fabric. This allows devices to move anywhere and keep the same VSAN membership. You should enable CFS distribution on all switches in the fabric. Using the CFS infrastructure, each DPVM server learns the DPVM database from each of its neighboring switches during the ISL bring-up process. If you change the database locally, the DPVM server notifies its neighboring switches, and that database is updated by all switches in the fabric.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/C LIConfigurationGuide/ddas.html and

On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router, which statement about HSRP and VRRP is true?

A.    When VDCs are in use, only VRRP is supported.
B.    HSRP and VRRP both use the same multicast IP address with different port numbers.
C.    HSRP has shorter default hold and hello times.
D.    The VRRP group IP address can be the same as the router-specific IP address.

Answer: D
VRRP allows for transparent failover at the first-hop IP router by configuring a group of routers to share a virtual IP address. VRRP selects a master router in that group to handle all packets for the virtual IP address. The remaining routers are in standby and take over if the master router fails.

Refer to the exhibit. This multilayer Cisco Nexus switch had been the active virtual gateway for Group 1 before it became temporarily unavailable. What will happen to GLBP Group 1 when this device becomes available again?

A.    The currently active router remains active.
B.    It depends on the priority value that is configured active on the router.
C.    The Cisco Nexus switch becomes the active virtual gateway after 600 seconds.
D.    It depends on the weighting values that are configured active on the router.

Answer: A
GLBP prioritizes gateways to elect an active virtual gateway (AVG). If multiple gateways have the same priority, the gateway with the highest real IP address becomes the AVG. The AVG assigns a virtual MAC address to each member of the GLBP group. Each member is the active virtual forwarder (AVF) for its assigned virtual MAC address, forwarding packets sent to its assigned virtual MAC address.
The AVG also answers Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for the virtual IP address.
Load sharing is achieved when the AVG replies to the ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
Note: Packets received on a routed port destined for the GLBP virtual IP address terminate on the local router, regardless of whether that router is the active GLBP router or a redundant GLBP router. This termination includes ping and Telnet traffic. Packets received on a Layer 2 (VLAN) interface destined for the GLBP virtual IP address terminate on the active router.

Which function does the graceful restart feature allow a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router to perform?

A.    Perform a rapid route convergence.
B.    Initialize a standby supervisor transparently when one is present.
C.    Remain in the data forwarding path through a process restart.
D.    Maintain a management connection throughout a router restart.

Answer: C
Graceful Restart and Non Stop Routing both allow for the forwarding of data packets to continue along known routes while the routing protocol information is being restored (in the case of Graceful Restart) or refreshed (in the case of Non Stop Routing) following a processor switchover. When Graceful Restart is used, peer networking devices are informed, via protocol extensions prior to the event, of the SSO capable routers ability to perform graceful restart. The peer device must have the ability to understand this messaging. When a switchover occurs, the peer will continue to forward to the switching over router as instructed by the GR process for each particular protocol, even though in most cases the peering relationship needs to be rebuilt. Essentially, the peer router will give the switching over router a “grace” period to re-establish the neighbor relationship, whilecontinuing to forward to the routes from that peer.

In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?

A.    forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
B.    forwarded using the last statement in the route map
C.    forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
D.    forwarded using destination-based routing

Answer: D
Each entry in a route map contains a combination of match and set statements. The match statements define the criteria for whether appropriate packets meet the particular policy (that is, the conditions to be met). The set clauses explain how the packets should be routed once they have met the match criteria.
You can mark the route-map statements as permit or deny.
You can interpret the statements as follows:
If the statement is marked as permit and the packets meet the match criteria, the set clause is applied. One of these actions involves choosing the next hop.
If a statement is marked as deny, the packets that meet the match criteria are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.
If the statement is marked as permit and the packets do not match any route-map statements, the packets are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.

What must be enabled on the interface of a multicast-enabled device to support the Source Specific Multicast feature?

A.    IGMP version 3
B.    IGMP version 2
C.    IGMP version 1
D.    PIM

Answer: A
IGMP is the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standards track protocol used for hosts to signal multicast group membership to routers. Version 3 of this protocol supports source filtering, which is required for SSM. To run SSM with IGMPv3, SSM must be supported in the Cisco IOS router, the host where the application is running, and the application itself. IGMP v3lite and URD are two Cisco-developed transition solutions that enable the immediate development and deployment of SSM services, without the need to wait for the availability of full IGMPv3 support in host operating systems and SSM receiver applications. IGMP v3lite is a solution for application developers that allows immediate development of SSM receiver applications switching to IGMPv3 as soon as it becomes available. URD is a solution for content providers and content aggregators that enables them to deploy receiver applications that are not yet SSM enabled (through support for IGMPv3). IGMPv3, IGMP v3lite, and URD interoperate with each other, so that both IGMP v3lite and URD can easily be used as transitional solutions toward full IGMPv3 support in hosts.

Which two statements about implementing Cisco NPV and NPIV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch are true? (Choose two.)

A.    STP must run inside the FP network.
B.    All VLANs must be in the same mode, CE, or FP.
C.    FP port can join the private and nonprivate VLANs.
D.    Only F and M series modules can run FabricPath.
E.    These require an enhanced Layer 2 license to run.

Answer: BE
With the Nexus 5×00 switch, FCoE functionality is a licensed feature. After the license is installed, FCoE configuration can be completed.

What is the Overlay Transport Virtualization site VLAN used for?

A.    to allow the join interfaces at different sites to communicate
B.    to detect devices at the site that are not capable of OTV
C.    to allow multiple site AEDs to communicate with each other
D.    to detect other OTV edge devices in the site

Answer: D
The edge device performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure. It is expected that at least two OTV edge devices are deployed at each data center site to improve the resiliency.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OT V_Intro/DCI_1.html

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