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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. Spoke devices will be dynamically added to the NHRP mappings.
B. The next-hop server address must be configured to 188.8.131.52 on all spokes.
C. The next-hop server address must be configured to 192.168.1.1 on all spokes.
D. R1 will create a static mapping for each spoke.
Which two tunneling techniques determine the IPv4 destination address on a per-packet basis? (Choose two.)
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. ISATAP tunneling
C. manual tunneling
D. GRE tunneling
Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network? (Choose two.)
A. Frame Relay
Which two statements about the C-bit and PW type are true? (Choose two.)
A. The C-bit is 1 byte and the PW type is 15 bytes.
B. The PW type indicates the type of pseudowire.
C. The C-bit is 3 bits and the PW type is 10 bits.
D. The C-bit set to 1 indicates a control word is present.
E. The PW type indicates the encryption type.
Which statement describes the function of rekey messages?
A. They prevent unencrypted traffic from passing through a group member before registration.
B. They refresh IPsec SAs when the key is about to expire.
C. They trigger a rekey from the server when configuring the rekey ACL.
D. They authenticate traffic passing through a particular group member.
Which three statements about GET VPN are true? (Choose three.)
A. It encrypts WAN traffic to increase data security and provide transport authentication.
B. It provides direct communication between sites, which reduces latency and jitter.
C. It can secure IP multicast, unicast, and broadcast group traffic.
D. It uses a centralized key server for membership control.
E. It enables the router to configure tunnels.
F. It maintains full-mesh connectivity for IP networks.
A. Configure the transform-set on R2 to match the configuration on R1.
B. Configure the crypto map on R2 to include the correct subnet.
C. Configure the ISAKMP policy names to match on R1 and R2.
D. Configure the crypto map names to match on R1 and R2.
E. Configure the Diffie-Hellman keys used in the ISAKMP policies to be different on R1 and R2.
Which service is disabled by the no service tcp-small-servers command?
A. the finger service
B. the Telnet service
C. the Maintenance Operation Protocol service
D. the chargen service
What is the ip dhcp snooping information option command used for?
A. It displays information about the DHCP snooping table.
B. It sends a syslog and an SNMP trap for a DHCP snooping violation.
C. It enables the DHCP snooping host tracking feature.
D. It enables DHCP option 82 data insertion.
Which two statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose two.)
A. Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.
B. Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks.
C. Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths.
D. Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths.
E. CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance.
Under Cisco IOS Software, which two features are supported in RADIUS Change of Authorization requests? (Choose two.)
A. session identification
B. session reauthentication
C. session termination
D. host termination
In a PfR environment, which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and fast mode monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. Active mode monitoring can monitor and measure actual traffic via NetFlow data collection.
B. Fast mode monitoring can measure bursty traffic better than active mode.
C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for the purpose of obtaining performance characteristics
of the current WAN exit link.
D. Fast mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes via all valid exits continuously to quickly determine an
alternate exit link.
A. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR rerouted the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because of an OOP event.
B. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via passive NetFlow mode only.
C. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via active, fast, or active throughput IP SLA probe mode only.
D. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the traffic
was previously in policy.
E. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via mode monitor, which provides both NetFlow and IP SLA measurements.
In the DiffServ model, which class represents the lowest priority with the highest drop probability?
Which two hashing algorithms can be used when configuring SNMPv3? (Choose two.)
Which two statements about the default router settings for SSH connections are true? (Choose two.)
A. The default timeout value for the SSH negotiation phase is 120 seconds.
B. Data is exchanged in clear text by default unless AAA authentication is enabled on the console.
C. The default number of authentication retries is 3.
D. SSH is enabled by default when you configure the username command.
A. It supports the service timestamps log uptime command to display time stamps.
B. The logging buffer command was used to increase the default of the buffer.
C. The logging of warning messages is disabled.
D. Log message sequence numbering is disabled.
Which two statements about class maps are true? (Choose two.)
A. As many as eight DSCP values can be included in a match dscp statement.
B. The default parameter on a class map with more than one match command is match-any.
C. The match class command can nest a class map within another class map.
D. A policy map can be used to designate a protocol within a class map.
A. The switchport priority extend cos command on interface FastEthernet0/0 prevents traffic to and
from the PC from taking advantage of the high-priority data queue that is assigned to the IP phone.
B. The switchport priority extend cos command on interface FastEthernet0/0 enables traffic to and
from the PC to use the high priority data queue that is assigned to the IP phone.
C. When the switch is configured to trust the CoS label of incoming traffic, the trusted boundary feature
is disabled automatically.
D. The mls qos cos override command on interface FastEthernet0/0 configures the port to trust the
CoS label of traffic to and from the PC.
Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by the use of the IP SLAs Responder?
C. ICMP Echo
D. UDP Echo
Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 and Router 2 use HSRP to provide first hop redundancy for hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
Which feature can provide additional failover coverage for the PC?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. Enhanced Object Tracking
Which neighbor-discovery message type is used to verify connectivity to a neighbor when the link-layer address of the neighbor is known?
A. neighbor solicitation
B. neighbor advertisement
C. router advertisement
D. router solicitation
A. The authentication parameters on R1 and R2 are mismatched.
B. R1 is using the default NTP source configuration.
C. R1 and R2 have established an NTP session.
D. R2 is configured as the NTP master with a stratum of 7.
Which three message types are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP Discover
D. DHCP Offer
F. DHCP Ack
Which two statements about static NAT are true? (Choose two.)
A. An outside local address maps to the same outside global IP address.
B. An inside local address maps to a different inside global IP address.
C. An outside local address maps to a different outside global IP address.
D. An inside local address maps to the same inside global IP address.
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