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What is the goal of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. to verify the reachability of the destination address in forwarded packets
B. to help control network congestion
C. to verify the reachability of the destination address in multicast packets
D. to verify the reachability of the source address in forwarded packets
Which three features are considered part of the IPv6 first-hop security suite? (Choose three.)
A. DNS guard
B. destination guard
C. DHCP guard
D. ICMP guard
E. RA guard
F. DoS guard
Refer to the exhibit. Why is the router not accessible via Telnet on the GigabitEthernet0 management interface?
A. The wrong port is being used in the telnet-acl access list.
B. The subnet mask is incorrect in the telnet-acl access list.
C. The log keyword needs to be removed from the telnet-acl access list..
D. The access class needs to have the vrf-also keyword added.
Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.)
A. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes)
B. RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data)
C. passive mode (based on NetFlow data)
D. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
E. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
F. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. The Cisco PfR state is UP; however, the external interface Et0/1 of border router 10.1.1.1 has exceeded
the maximum available bandwidth threshold.
B. The Cisco PfR state is UP; however, an issue is preventing the border router from establishing a TCP
session to the master controller.
C. The Cisco PfR state is UP and is able to monitor traffic flows; however, MD5 authentication has not been
successful between the master controller and the border routers.
D. The Cisco PfR State is UP; however, the receive capacity was not configured for inbound traffic.
E. The Cisco PfR state is UP, and the link utilization out-of-policy threshold is set to 90 percent for traffic
exiting the external links.
In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the highest drop probability?
A. The SLA must also have a schedule configured before it will start.
B. The TTL of the SLA packets is 10.
C. The SLA has a timeout of 3.6 seconds.
D. The SLA has a lifetime of 5 seconds.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose three.)
A. Enable NAT-PT globally.
B. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation.
C. Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation.
D. Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPv4 address.
E. Specify a ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address.
F. Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address.
Which two DHCP messages are always sent as broadcast? (Choose two.)
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 184.108.40.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 220.127.116.11.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 18.104.22.168.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 22.214.171.124.
A. COS 3 is mapped to the expedited forwarding DSCP.
B. COS 16 is mapped to DSCP 2.
C. The default COS is mapped to DSCP 32.
D. This mapping is the default COS-DSCP mapping on Cisco switches.
Which three statements about implementing a NAT application layer gateway in a network are true? (Choose three.)
A. It allows client applications to use dynamic ports to communicate with a server regardless of whether
NAT is being used.
B. It maintains granular security over application-specific data.
C. It allows synchronization between multiple streams of data between two hosts.
D. Application layer gateway is used only in VoIP/SIP deployments.
E. Client applications require additional configuration to use an application layer gateway.
F. An application layer gateway inspects only the first 64 bytes of a packet before forwarding it through
A. on Router A and its upstream routers
B. on Router A and its downstream routers
C. on Router A only
D. on Router A and all of its ARP neighbors
Where is multicast traffic sent, when it is originated from a spoke site in a DMVPN phase 2 cloud?
B. nowhere, because multicast does not work over DMVPN
C. spoke-spoke and spoke-hub
Refer to the exhibit. A spoke site that is connected to Router-A cannot reach a spoke site that is connected to Router- B, but both spoke sites can reach the hub. What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. There is a router doing PAT at site B.
B. There is a router doing PAT at site A.
C. NHRP is learning the IP address of the remote spoke site as a /32 address rather than a /24 address.
D. There is a routing issue, as NHRP registration is working.
Which mechanism can be used on Layer 2 switches so that only multicast packets with downstream receivers are sent on the multicast router-connected ports?
A. IGMP snooping
B. Router Guard
C. PIM snooping
D. multicast filtering
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
With which ISs will an ISIS Level 1 IS exchange routing information?
A. Level 1 ISs
B. Level 1 ISs in the same area
C. Level 1 and Level 2 ISs
D. Level 2 ISs
A. because the area ID on R1 is different as compared to the area ID of R2 and R3
B. because the circuit type on those three routers is L1/L2
C. because the network type between R1, R2, and R3 is point-to-point
D. because the hello interval is not the same on those three routers
Which three statements about the designated router election in IS-IS are true? (Choose three.)
A. If the IS-IS DR fails, a new DR is elected.
B. The IS-IS DR will preempt. If a new router with better priority is added, it just becomes active in the network.
C. If there is a tie in DR priority, the router with a higher IP address wins.
D. If there is a tie in DR priority, the router with a higher MAC address wins.
E. If the DR fails, the BDR is promoted as the DR.
F. The DR is optional in a point-to-point network.
Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three.)
A. area ID
B. domain ID
C. system ID
D. NSAP selector
E. MAC address
F. IP address
Which statement about shaped round robin queuing is true?
A. Queues with higher configured weights are serviced first.
B. The device waits a period of time, set by the configured weight, before servicing the next queue.
C. The device services a single queue completely before moving on to the next queue.
D. Shaped mode is available on both the ingress and egress queues.
Refer to the exhibit. You discover that only 1.5 Mb/s of web traffic can pass during times of congestion on the given network.
Which two options are possible reasons for this limitation? (Choose two.)
A. The web traffic class has too little bandwidth reservation.
B. Video traffic is using too much bandwidth.
C. The service-policy is on the wrong interface.
D. The service-policy is going in the wrong direction.
E. The NAT policy is adding too much overhead.
A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.194.4.
B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.194.4.
C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.194.4.
D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds.
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